Did Technological Advancement Reverse from the Fall of the Roman Empire to the Middle Ages?

During the Roman empire, there was running water, toilets, baths, better standard of living. During the Middle Ages, it seem that scientific breakthroughs reversed course. Is this true?

Suggestion:

It is said that in the year 1100, the accepted end of the Dark ages and the start of the Middle ages, the roads and transport infrastructure in Europe and nearby was no better then when the Romans were doing their thing.

There were few major inventions that were helpful to all men (lots of improvements in war technology; nothings changed there) such as the heavy plough and the stirrup (from China; nothings different there either).